QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status?
(Choose two.)
A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. The bandwidth is set too low.
C. A protocol mismatch exists
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION 2
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and
which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is
shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using
the same encapsulation type.
Answer: D,F
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured
on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION 5
If you are a network administrator, how will you explain VTP configuration to a new technician?
(Choose three.)
A. In the VTP client mode, a switch is unable to update its local VLAN database.
B. Configure a trunk link between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. In the VTP server mode, a switch is able to update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. In the VTP transparent mode, a switch will forward the received updates to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a
higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the
configured VTP domain membership.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
VTP operates in one of three modes:
Server – In this VTP mode you can create, remove, and modify VLANs. You can also set other
configuration options like the VTP version and also turn on/off VTP pruning for the entire VTP
domain. VTP servers advertise their VLAN configuration to other switches in the same VTP
domain and synchronize their VLAN configuration with other switches based on messages
received over trunk links. VTP server is the default mode. The VLANs information are stored on
NVRAM and they are not lost after a reboot.
Client – VTP clients behave the same way as VTP servers, but you cannot create, change, or
delete VLANs on the local device. In VTP client mode, VLAN configurations are not saved in
NVRAM.
QUESTION 6
Cisco IOS (originally Internetwork Operating System) is the software used on the vast majority of
Cisco Systems routers and all current Cisco network switches. Which two of the following devices
could you configure as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION 7
What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
A. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device
C. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
D. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
E. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
F. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is primarily used to obtain protocol addresses of neighboring
devices and discover the platform of those devices. CDP can also be used to show information
about the interfaces your router uses. CDP is an independent media protocol and runs on all
Cisco-manufactured devices including routers, bridges, access servers, and switches. It should be
noted that CDP is a protocol which works on the layer2. By default, multicast advertise is sent
every 60 seconds to 01-00-0 c-cc-cc-cc as the destination address . When reaching the holdtime
of 180 seconds , if not receiving the advertise from neighboring devices yet, the information of
neighboring devices will be cleared.
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators
collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather
hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices, which is useful info for troubleshooting
and documenting the network.
You can use:
Show cdp neighbor
Show cdp neighbor details
Commands to gather the information of connected neighbors.
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are using a default configuration. Which two destination
addresses will host 4 use to send data to host 1? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of host 1
B. the IP address of host 4
C. the MAC address of host 1
D. the MAC address of host 4
E. the MAC address of the Fa0/0 interface of the R1 router
F. the MAC address of the Fa0/1 interface of the R1 router
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
QUESTION 9
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands:
What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.
B. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
C. The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers.
D. The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.
E. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet
without address translation
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Since the hosts on the Fast Ethernet 0/1 network are using private RFC 1918 IP addressing
(192.168.10.0/24) their IP addresses will need to be translated into a publicly routable address in
order to access the Internet. However, the server is using the 198.133.219.9 IP address, which is
publicly routable and so Internet users can indeed access this server (assuming that the
198.133.219.9 IP address has been correctly assigned to the network)
QUESTION 10
Your Company has installed IP phones. Both the phones and the office computers connect to the
same device. The phone traffic and the office computer data traffic must be on different networks
to ensure maximum throughput for the phone data. Which network device can be best connected
to the phones and computers, and which technology will be performed on this device? (Choose
two.)
A. hub
B. router
C. switch
D. stp
E. subinterfaces
F. VLAN
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
You can configure VLANs on the switch to distinguish two types of data traffic.
QUESTION 11
Which two benefits can be obtained by using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.)
A. Allowing frames from multiple VLANs to use a single interface.
B. Allowing switches to read frame tags.
C. Maintaining VLAN consistency across a switched network.
D. Allowing VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching
environment.
E. It allows ports to be assigned to VLANs automatically.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
VTP minimizes the possible configuration inconsistencies that arise when changes are made.
These inconsistencies can result in security violations, because VLANs can crossconnect when
duplicate names are used. They also could become internally disconnected when they are
mapped from one LAN type to another, for example, Ethernet to ATM LANE ELANs or FDDI
802.10 VLANs. VTP provides a mapping scheme that enables seamless trunking within a network
employing mixed-media technologies.
VTP provides the following benefits:
QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0
192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network.
B. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network.
C. It creates a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network.
D. It uses the default administrative distance.
E. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the
address 192.168.2.4.
F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
This question is to examine the static route-related concept.
ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4
This is a static route configuration command. 172.16.3.0 is the destination network, 192.168.2.4 is
the next hop.
The administrative distance is not configured, so the default administrative distance is used. The
correct answers are A and D.
QUESTION 13
Which two of the following are advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two.)
A. To increase the size of broadcast domains
B. To filter frames according to MAC addresses
C. To allow simultaneous frame transmissions
D. To increase the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices
E. decreasing the number of collision domains
F. increasing the size of broadcast domains
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
A hub is a broadcast domain and a collision domain, while a switch is a broadcast domain, each
interface is a collision domain. The switch is a device of data link layer, forwards and floods data
frames based on the MAC address. The hub adopts the shared bandwidth working mode, while
the switch adopts dedicated bandwidth.
A half duplex connection is where only one device can send or receive at a time. A full duplex
connection is where both devices can send and receive at the same time.
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to configure the switches and router in the graphic
so that the hosts in VLAN3 and VLAN4 can communicate with the enterprise server in VLAN2.
Which two Ethernet segments would need to be configured as trunk links? (Choose two.)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
Layer 3 routing is needed to implement communication between VLANs, so a trunk link is
configured between ROuter and Switch2. Both Switch1 and Switch2own VLAN3 and VLAN4
members, so a trunk link is configured between Switch1 and Switch2.
QUESTION 15
Which two values are used by Spanning Tree Protocol to elect a root bridge? (Choose two.)
A. bridge priority
B. IP address
C. MAC address
D. IOS version
E. amount of RAM
F. speed of the links
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Two values are compared to elect a root bridge in STP: bridge priority and MAC address.
Switch having lowest bridge ID will become the root bridge. The bridge ID is how STP keeps track
of all the switches in the network. It is determined by a combination of the bridge priority (32,768
by default on all Cisco switches) and the base MAC address. The bridge with the lowest bridge ID
becomes the root bridge in the network.
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that the routing protocol referenced in each choice below is
configured with its default settings and the given routing protocol is running on all the routers.
Which two conditional statements accurately state the path that will be chosen between networks
10.1.0.0 and 10.3.2.0 for the routing protocol mentioned? (Choose two.)
A. If OSPF is the routing protocol, the path will be from R1 to R3 to R4 to R5.
B. If OSPF is the routing protocol, the path will be from R1 to R2 to R5.
C. If OSPF is the routing protocol, the path will be from R1 to R5.
D. If RIPv2 is the routing protocol, the path will be from R1 to R3 to R4 to R5.
E. If RIPv2 is the routing protocol, the path will be from R1 to R5.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is adding two new hosts to Switch
A. Which three
values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)
A. host A IP address: 192.168.1.79
B. host A IP address: 192.168.1.64
C. host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78
D. host B IP address: 192.168.1.128
E. host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
F. host B IP address: 192.168.1.190
Answer: A,C,F
Explanation:
QUESTION 18
What will happen after changing the configuration register to 0x2142 and rebooting the router?
(Choose two.)
A. The IOS image will be ignored.
B. The router will prompt to enter initial configuration mode.
C. The router will boot to ROM.
D. Any configuration entries in NVRAM will be ignored.
E. The configuration in flash memory will be booted.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. The networks connected to router R2 have been summarized as a
192.168.176.0/21 route and sent to R1. Which two packet destination addresses will R1 forward to
R2? (Choose two.)
A. 192.168.194.160
B. 192.168.183.41
C. 192.168.159.2
D. 192.168.183.255
E. 192.168.179.4
F. 192.168.184.45
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION 20
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about how router JAX will choose a path to
the 10.1.3.0/24 network when different routing protocols are configured? (Choose three.)
A. By default, if RIPv2 is the routing protocol, only the path JAX-ORL will be installed into the
routing table.
B. The equal cost paths JAX-CHI-ORL and JAX- NY-ORL will be installed in the routing table if
RIPv2 is the routing protocol.
C. When EIGRP is the routing protocol, only the path JAX-ORL will be installed in the routing table
by default.
D. When EIGRP is the routing protocol, the equal cost paths JAX-CHI-ORL, and JAX-NY-ORL will
be installed in the routing table by default.
E. With EIGRP and OSPF both running on the network with their default configurations, the
EIGRP paths will be installed in the routing table.
F. The OSPF paths will be installed in the routing table, if EIGRP and OSPF are both running on
the network with their default configurations.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a
unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to
communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to
communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION 23
On the basis of the IEEE 802.1w standard, which two switch ports can forward traffic?
A. alternate
B. backup
C. designated
D. disabled
E. root
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the most likely
reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning
Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question is to check the STP technology.
When STP is running in a network with loops, ports will transition into the forwarding state or the
blocking state. Here decisive factor is the cost to reach the root bridge, the port with the higher
cost is in the blocking state, while the port with the lower cost is in the forwarding state.
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must establish a route by which London
workstations can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to
accomplish this?
A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.
B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to
Manchester.
C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London
router.
D. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.
E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.
F. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. This command is executed on 2960Switch:
2960Switch(config)# mac-address-table static 0000.00aa.aaaa vlan 10 interface fa0/1
Which two of these statements correctly identify results of executing the command? (Choose two.)
A. Port security is implemented on the fa0/1 interface.
B. MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa does not need to be learned by this switch.
C. Only MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa can source frames on the fa0/1 segment.
D. Frames with a Layer 2 source address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
E. MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa will be listed in the MAC address table for interface fa0/1 only.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION 27
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use.
Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Layer 2 switching is considered hardware-based bridging because it uses specialized hardware
called an application-specific integrated circuit (ASIC). ASICs can run up to gigabit speeds with
very low latency rates.
A router is commonly considered to be a DTE device, while a CSU/DSU is considered the DCE
device.
Switches usually have higher port number then bridge. Generally bridges have two ports. Both
operates on Data link layer.
QUESTION 28
What are two characteristics of Telnet? (Choose two.)
A. It sends data in clear text format.
B. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices.
C. It is more secure than SSH.
D. It requires an enterprise license in order to be implemented.
E. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Telnet sends data in clear text. If a remote device wants to access the destination device through
Telnet, the destination device must be configured to support Telnet connections.
QUESTION 29
Which two security appliances will you use in a network? (Choose two.)
A. ATM
B. ids
C. ios
D. iox
E. ips
F. SDM
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION 30
A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A
few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating
at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction
Answer: C,E,F
Explanation:
A. Cordless phones may interfere in wireless NIC.
B. mismatched SSID
SSID(Service Set Identifier)can also be written as ESSID, which is used to distinguish different
networks and has 32 characters at most , WLAN cards set up different SSID to enter different
networks. SSID is usually broadcast by AP, you can view SSID of the present area through XP
built-in scanning feature .Taking security into consideration, SSID can be not broadcast,
meanwhile users need to set up SSID manually to enter the appropriate network. In simple terms,
SSID is the name of a local area network; only those computers that set up the same SSID values
can communicate with each other. If SSID fails to match, wireless will fail in connection, and no
wireless network inefficiency will appear.
C. metal file cabinets may have a certain amount of shielding
D. antenna type or direction
QUESTION 31
Given that Host A and Host B are in different networks. When Host A is trying to communicate with
Host B, which step will Host A take first?
A. Send a TCP SYN and wait for the SYN ACK with the IP address of Host B.
B. Drop the data.
C. Create an ARP request to get a MAC address for Host B.
D. Send the data frames to the default gateway.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question is to examine the ARP working principle.
When Host A doesn’t know the MAC address of Host B, the ARP request will be broadcast so that
all hosts on the LAN can see this request. If the IP is not local, the router will check its routing
table to see whether there is a route to the destination network. If there is, the router will reply with
its own MAC address.
So C is correct.
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)
A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D. The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity.
E. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION 33
Which two devices can interfere with the operation of a wireless network because they operate on
similar frequencies? (Choose two.)
A. toaster
B. IP phone
C. AM radio
D. cordless phone
E. microwave oven
F. copier
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
The microwave and cordless phone in the 2.4GHz spectrum band will interfere with the operation
of a wireless network.
QUESTION 34
Which two descriptions are correct about characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose
two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the
interface.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION 36
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION 37
What are three basic parameters to configure on a wireless access point? (Choose three.)
A. SSID
B. RTS/CTS
C. AES-CCMP
D. TKIP/MIC
E. RF channel
F. authentication method
Answer: A,E,F
Explanation:
SSID (Service Set Identifier) can also be written as ESSID, which is used to distinguish different
networks. It has 32 characters at most, WLAN cards set up different SSID to enter different
networks. SSID is usually broadcast by AP or wireless routers , you can view SSID of the present
area through XP built-in scanning feature .Taking security into consideration, SSID can be not
broadcast, meanwhile users need to set up SSID manually to enter the appropriate network.
Simply speaking, SSID is the name of a local area network, only those computers that set up the
same SSID value can communicate with each other.
RF is an acronym for Radio Frequency. It is the electromagnetic frequency that can be radiated to
space, frequency range from 300 KHz to 30GHz.
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. A system administrator installed a new switch using a script to configure it. IP
connectivity was tested using pings to SwitchB. Later attempts to access NewSwitch using Telnet
from SwitchA failed. Which statement is true?
A. Executing password recovery is required.
B. The virtual terminal lines are misconfigured.
C. Use Telnet to connect to RouterA and then to NewSwitch to correct the error.
D. Power cycle of NewSwitch will return it to a default configuration.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION 39
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1 D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1 D STP.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
When network topology changes, rapid spanning tree protocol (IEEE802.1W, referred to as RSTP)
will speed up significantly the speed to re-calculate spanning tree. RSTP not only defines the role
of other ports: alternative port and backup port, but also defines status of 3 ports: discarding
status, learning status, forwarding status.
RSTP is 802.1D standard evolution, not revolution. It retains most of the parameters, and makes
no changes.
QUESTION 40
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1 Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1 Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1 Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1 Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1 Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1 Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
By default, 802.1Q trunk defined Native VLAN in order to forward unmarked frame. Switches can
forward Layer 2 frame from Native VLAN on unmarked trunks port. Receiver switches will transmit
all unmarked packets to Native VLAN. Native VLAN is the default VLAN configuration of port.
Note: for the 802.1Q trunk ports between two devices, the same Native VLAN configuration is
required on both sides of the link. If the Native VLAN in 802.1Q trunk ports on same trunk link is
properly configured, it could lead to layer 2 loops. The 802.1Q trunk link transmits VLAN
information through Ethernet.
QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as
being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of
these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:
QUESTION 42
Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security
on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other
device is detected, the port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the
interface and tested it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output
from these two show commands.
Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Configure port security to shut down the interface in the event of a violation.
B. Enable port security on the interface.
C. Enable port security globally.
D. Configure port security to allow only one learned MAC address.
E. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command.
F. The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
This question is to examine the layer 2 port security.
According to the exhibit, we know that the port security is configured to restrict the interface in the
event of a violation. So A is wrong.
The port security should be enabled on the interface, not globally.
So the correct answers are B and D.
QUESTION 43
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose
two)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control
information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the
segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination
host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to
a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The Application Layer (Layer 7) refers to communications services to applications and is the
interface between the network and the application. Examples include: Telnet, HTTP, FTP, Internet
browsers, NFS, SMTP gateways, SNMP, X.400 mail, and FTAM.
The Presentation Layer (Layer 6) defining data formats, such as ASCII text, EBCDIC text, binary,
BCD, and JPEG. Encryption also is defined as a presentation layer service. Examples include:
JPEG, ASCII, EBCDIC, TIFF, GIF, PICT, encryption, MPEG, and MIDI.
The Session Layer (Layer 5) defines how to start, control, and end communication sessions. This
includes the control and management of multiple bidirectional messages so that the application
can be notified if only some of a series of messages are completed. This allows the presentation
layer to have a seamless view of an incoming stream of data. The presentation layer can be
presented with data if all flows occur in some cases. Examples include: RPC, SQL, NFS, NetBios
names, AppleTalk ASP, and DECnet SCP
The Transport Layer (Layer 4) defines several functions, including the choice of protocols. The
most important Layer 4 functions are error recovery and flow control. The transport layer may
provide for retransmission, i.e., error recovery, and may use flow control to prevent unnecessary
congestion by attempting to send data at a rate that the network can accommodate, or it might not,
depending on the choice of protocols. Multiplexing of incoming data for different flows to
applications on the same host is also performed. Reordering of the incoming data stream when
packets arrive out of order is included. Examples include: TCP, UDP, and SPX.
The Network Layer (Layer 3) defines end-to-end delivery of packets and defines logical
addressing to accomplish this. It also defines how routing works and how routes are learned; and
how to fragment a packet into smaller packets to accommodate media with smaller maximum
transmission unit sizes. Examples include: IP, IPX, AppleTalk DDP, and ICMP. Both IP and IPX
define logical addressing, routing, the learning of routing information, and end-to-end delivery
rules. The IP and IPX protocols most closely match the OSI network layer (Layer 3) and are called
Layer 3 protocols because their functions most closely match OSI’s Layer 3.
The Data Link Layer (Layer 2) is concerned with getting data across one particular link or medium.
The data link protocols define delivery across an individual link. These protocols are necessarily
concerned with the type of media in use. Examples include: IEEE 802.3/802.2, HDLC, Frame
Relay, PPP, FDDI, ATM, and IEEE 802.5/802.2.
QUESTION 44
For which type of connection should a straight-through cable be used?
A. switch to switch
B. switch to hub
C. switch to router
D. hub to hub
E. router to PC
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION 45
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Answer: C
Explanation:
This question is to examine the layer 2 security configuration.
In order to satisfy the requirements of this question, you should perform the following
configurations in the interface mode:
First, configure the interface mode as the access mode
Second, enable the port security and set the maximum number of connections to 1.
QUESTION 46
By default, each port in a Cisco Catalyst switch is assigned to VLAN1. Which two
recommendations are key to avoid unauthorized management access? (Choose two.)
A. Create an additional ACL to block the access to VLAN 1.
B. Move the management VLAN to something other than default.
C. Move all ports to another VLAN and deactivate the default VLAN.
D. Limit the access in the switch using port security configuration.
E. Use static VLAN in trunks and access ports to restrict connections.
F. Shutdown all unused ports in the Catalyst switch.
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
QUESTION 47
Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon
receipt of a BPDU?
A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. Root Guard
D. BPDU Guard
E. BPDU Filter
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION 48
Which type of cable is used to connect the COM port of a host to the COM port of a router or
switch?
A. crossover
B. straight-through
C. rolled
D. shielded twisted-pair
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION 49
What is known as “one-to-nearest” addressing in IPv6?
A. global unicast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unspecified address
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION 50
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0000:130F: :099a: :12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Answer: D
Explanation:
